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	<title>Comments on: Statistical Literacy Among Doctors Now Lower Than Chance</title>
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	<link>http://slatestarcodex.com/2013/12/17/statistical-literacy-among-doctors-now-lower-than-chance/</link>
	<description>In a mad world, all blogging is psychiatry blogging</description>
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		<title>By: Yeangst</title>
		<link>http://slatestarcodex.com/2013/12/17/statistical-literacy-among-doctors-now-lower-than-chance/#comment-27445</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Yeangst]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Tue, 07 Jan 2014 18:52:03 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://slatestarcodex.com/?p=1244#comment-27445</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[To be fair that post was really, really bad. It it did lead me to your (very good) newer post though.

The Marginal Revolution comment section is one of the the worst this side of a PUA blog&#039;s though. I think the only reason I still read them is out of misplaced sense of nostalgia.]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>To be fair that post was really, really bad. It it did lead me to your (very good) newer post though.</p>
<p>The Marginal Revolution comment section is one of the the worst this side of a PUA blog&#8217;s though. I think the only reason I still read them is out of misplaced sense of nostalgia.</p>
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		<title>By: Josie</title>
		<link>http://slatestarcodex.com/2013/12/17/statistical-literacy-among-doctors-now-lower-than-chance/#comment-27119</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Josie]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Fri, 03 Jan 2014 19:40:24 +0000</pubDate>
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		<description><![CDATA[Why are you saying that a p-value has nothing to do with Bayes whilst acknowledging that it is a conditional probability?

Bayes&#039; theorem is how we deal with conditional probabilities. You cannot interpret a p-value without using it. The probability of obtaining a false positive depends on the probability that the null hypothesis is false. Without an estimate of that probability you have no way of interpreting a p-value.

- In the example I used (with a prior of 10% false H0s) a p-value of 0.05 gave a probability of a false positive of 0.36. 

- If the prior was that we are equally likely to be testing a false H0 as a true one then it would be 9%. 

- The two probabilities only become equal when we are 100% certain that the null hypothesis is false. In which case we would need to do the research in the first place.

This is really basic stuff and very few researchers understand it. This is a huge failing of statistics.]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Why are you saying that a p-value has nothing to do with Bayes whilst acknowledging that it is a conditional probability?</p>
<p>Bayes&#8217; theorem is how we deal with conditional probabilities. You cannot interpret a p-value without using it. The probability of obtaining a false positive depends on the probability that the null hypothesis is false. Without an estimate of that probability you have no way of interpreting a p-value.</p>
<p>&#8211; In the example I used (with a prior of 10% false H0s) a p-value of 0.05 gave a probability of a false positive of 0.36. </p>
<p>&#8211; If the prior was that we are equally likely to be testing a false H0 as a true one then it would be 9%. </p>
<p>&#8211; The two probabilities only become equal when we are 100% certain that the null hypothesis is false. In which case we would need to do the research in the first place.</p>
<p>This is really basic stuff and very few researchers understand it. This is a huge failing of statistics.</p>
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		<title>By: Glen Barnett</title>
		<link>http://slatestarcodex.com/2013/12/17/statistical-literacy-among-doctors-now-lower-than-chance/#comment-26222</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Glen Barnett]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Thu, 26 Dec 2013 01:22:08 +0000</pubDate>
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		<description><![CDATA[The reason it&#039;s false really has nothing to do with Bayesian statistics. To evaluate the probability in the question would require Bayesian statistics, but if we&#039;re looking at p-values, we&#039;re doing frequentist hypothesis testing, so we&#039;re not doing Bayesian statistics. The p-value is a conditional probability, and is correctly defined in the first sentence on the Wikipedia page on p-values (there are quite different ways to write it that are equivalent, though). Specifically, the p-value is the probability of a result at least as extreme as the sample result, given the null hypothesis is true. That can be a *very* different thing to the wrong answer in the question, which we never evaluate. The p-value gives you some idea of whether &#039;it was just chance&#039; is a plausible explanation of what you saw. If it isn&#039;t a very  plausible explanation you&#039;re left with three possibilities: (i) H0 is true and a really low chance event occurred; (ii) one or more of the assumptions was wrong; or (iii) H0 isn&#039;t true. Any of those explanations might be the case.]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>The reason it&#8217;s false really has nothing to do with Bayesian statistics. To evaluate the probability in the question would require Bayesian statistics, but if we&#8217;re looking at p-values, we&#8217;re doing frequentist hypothesis testing, so we&#8217;re not doing Bayesian statistics. The p-value is a conditional probability, and is correctly defined in the first sentence on the Wikipedia page on p-values (there are quite different ways to write it that are equivalent, though). Specifically, the p-value is the probability of a result at least as extreme as the sample result, given the null hypothesis is true. That can be a *very* different thing to the wrong answer in the question, which we never evaluate. The p-value gives you some idea of whether &#8216;it was just chance&#8217; is a plausible explanation of what you saw. If it isn&#8217;t a very  plausible explanation you&#8217;re left with three possibilities: (i) H0 is true and a really low chance event occurred; (ii) one or more of the assumptions was wrong; or (iii) H0 isn&#8217;t true. Any of those explanations might be the case.</p>
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		<title>By: Josie</title>
		<link>http://slatestarcodex.com/2013/12/17/statistical-literacy-among-doctors-now-lower-than-chance/#comment-26220</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Josie]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Thu, 26 Dec 2013 00:07:21 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://slatestarcodex.com/?p=1244#comment-26220</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[You can&#039;t actually interpret a p-value without using Bayes. It is a conditional probability - the probability of getting a result as or more extreme IF the null hypothesis was true.

Say 10% of null hypotheses can be disproven for a given study design (power, size of effect etc) and the rest are true within the limitations of our sample size. 

Say we get p&lt;0.05 and the study had 80% power. What is the probability that the null hypothesis is false?

Out of 1000 trials 100 will have a false null hypothesis.

We will get p&lt;0.05 for 80 of these (because we have 80% power).

900 will have a true null hypothesis.

We will get p&lt;0.05 for 45 of these.

In total we have 125 &#039;positive&#039; results and 45 of them are false positives.

So we can only be ~65% certain that the null hypothesis is false when p&lt;0.05 in this situation.

If you repeat the test for all the positive trials (65% of which have a false null hypothesis this time around) you get down to a p-value of around 0.03. A Bayesian argument for confirmatory trials.

A randomised controlled trial is just a diagnostic test for treatment differences. The p-value is the specificity and the power is the sensitivity. Calculate PPV and NPV as normal.

[This was first pointed out to me by MKB Parmar and has been written a lot about by John Ioannides.]]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>You can&#8217;t actually interpret a p-value without using Bayes. It is a conditional probability &#8211; the probability of getting a result as or more extreme IF the null hypothesis was true.</p>
<p>Say 10% of null hypotheses can be disproven for a given study design (power, size of effect etc) and the rest are true within the limitations of our sample size. </p>
<p>Say we get p&lt;0.05 and the study had 80% power. What is the probability that the null hypothesis is false?</p>
<p>Out of 1000 trials 100 will have a false null hypothesis.</p>
<p>We will get p&lt;0.05 for 80 of these (because we have 80% power).</p>
<p>900 will have a true null hypothesis.</p>
<p>We will get p&lt;0.05 for 45 of these.</p>
<p>In total we have 125 &#039;positive&#039; results and 45 of them are false positives.</p>
<p>So we can only be ~65% certain that the null hypothesis is false when p&lt;0.05 in this situation.</p>
<p>If you repeat the test for all the positive trials (65% of which have a false null hypothesis this time around) you get down to a p-value of around 0.03. A Bayesian argument for confirmatory trials.</p>
<p>A randomised controlled trial is just a diagnostic test for treatment differences. The p-value is the specificity and the power is the sensitivity. Calculate PPV and NPV as normal.</p>
<p>[This was first pointed out to me by MKB Parmar and has been written a lot about by John Ioannides.]</p>
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		<title>By: JP H</title>
		<link>http://slatestarcodex.com/2013/12/17/statistical-literacy-among-doctors-now-lower-than-chance/#comment-26021</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[JP H]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Tue, 24 Dec 2013 01:00:51 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://slatestarcodex.com/?p=1244#comment-26021</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Great post. That&#039;s all I can say.]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Great post. That&#8217;s all I can say.</p>
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		<title>By: Nancy Lebovitz</title>
		<link>http://slatestarcodex.com/2013/12/17/statistical-literacy-among-doctors-now-lower-than-chance/#comment-25708</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Nancy Lebovitz]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Sat, 21 Dec 2013 17:58:23 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://slatestarcodex.com/?p=1244#comment-25708</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[Why do you think banning mammograms is a good idea?]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Why do you think banning mammograms is a good idea?</p>
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		<title>By: Jonathan Weissman</title>
		<link>http://slatestarcodex.com/2013/12/17/statistical-literacy-among-doctors-now-lower-than-chance/#comment-25582</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Jonathan Weissman]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Fri, 20 Dec 2013 18:11:43 +0000</pubDate>
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		<description><![CDATA[That would require the test providers to know the base rate, and &lt;a href=&quot;http://www.overcomingbias.com/2009/02/share-likelihood-ratios-not-posterior-beliefs.html#more-16717&quot; rel=&quot;nofollow&quot;&gt;it would make it difficult to combine the results of multiple tests&lt;/a&gt;.

However, maybe publish the likelihood ratio, an assumed prior, and the implied posterior probability.]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>That would require the test providers to know the base rate, and <a href="http://www.overcomingbias.com/2009/02/share-likelihood-ratios-not-posterior-beliefs.html#more-16717" rel="nofollow">it would make it difficult to combine the results of multiple tests</a>.</p>
<p>However, maybe publish the likelihood ratio, an assumed prior, and the implied posterior probability.</p>
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		<title>By: Douglas Knight</title>
		<link>http://slatestarcodex.com/2013/12/17/statistical-literacy-among-doctors-now-lower-than-chance/#comment-25581</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Douglas Knight]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Fri, 20 Dec 2013 18:10:37 +0000</pubDate>
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		<description><![CDATA[The reason for the choice of ob/gyns and the reason that these studies always use the example of mammograms is because banning mammograms is a reasonable idea. And I don&#039;t mean direct-to-consumer mammograms.

No, ob/gyns won&#039;t be evaluating genetic tests (except BRCA). But neither will geneticists. The relevant comparison is &lt;a href=&quot;https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Genetic_counselor&quot; rel=&quot;nofollow&quot;&gt;genetic counselors&lt;/a&gt;, a job created in 1979 to counsel pregnant women about the morality of aborting Downs fetuses.]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>The reason for the choice of ob/gyns and the reason that these studies always use the example of mammograms is because banning mammograms is a reasonable idea. And I don&#8217;t mean direct-to-consumer mammograms.</p>
<p>No, ob/gyns won&#8217;t be evaluating genetic tests (except BRCA). But neither will geneticists. The relevant comparison is <a href="https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Genetic_counselor" rel="nofollow">genetic counselors</a>, a job created in 1979 to counsel pregnant women about the morality of aborting Downs fetuses.</p>
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		<title>By: Tdk</title>
		<link>http://slatestarcodex.com/2013/12/17/statistical-literacy-among-doctors-now-lower-than-chance/#comment-25571</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Tdk]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Fri, 20 Dec 2013 15:33:47 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://slatestarcodex.com/?p=1244#comment-25571</guid>
		<description><![CDATA[This study seems to leave a lot to be desired. First, it uses a single sub-specialty, which makes the statement &quot;42% of doctors can....&quot;a bit of a generalization and not as accurate as &quot;42% of OB/Gyn  doctors can...&quot;.   Secondly, how does the ability of OB/Gyn doctors to understand p-values relate to geneticists being able to read the genome better than an untrained individual? It&#039;s apples and oranges in a way since OB/Gyn aren&#039;t the ones who would be discerning someone&#039;s genome and looking at possible accurances of mutations and whether those mutations are even important. OB/Gyn are more likely to use p-values as described at the end of the article as a threshold of accepting or not accepting published scientific findings. Now if the study had been done with 4,000 geneticists or other physicians who directly interpret genomic data I would find the study more compelling evidence of the unfairness of the FDA&#039;s decision. However , as is, my opinion of OB/Gyn  doctors&#039; ability to do statistics and the FDA&#039;s decision are two unrelated things.]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>This study seems to leave a lot to be desired. First, it uses a single sub-specialty, which makes the statement &#8220;42% of doctors can&#8230;.&#8221;a bit of a generalization and not as accurate as &#8220;42% of OB/Gyn  doctors can&#8230;&#8221;.   Secondly, how does the ability of OB/Gyn doctors to understand p-values relate to geneticists being able to read the genome better than an untrained individual? It&#8217;s apples and oranges in a way since OB/Gyn aren&#8217;t the ones who would be discerning someone&#8217;s genome and looking at possible accurances of mutations and whether those mutations are even important. OB/Gyn are more likely to use p-values as described at the end of the article as a threshold of accepting or not accepting published scientific findings. Now if the study had been done with 4,000 geneticists or other physicians who directly interpret genomic data I would find the study more compelling evidence of the unfairness of the FDA&#8217;s decision. However , as is, my opinion of OB/Gyn  doctors&#8217; ability to do statistics and the FDA&#8217;s decision are two unrelated things.</p>
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		<title>By: Paul Torek</title>
		<link>http://slatestarcodex.com/2013/12/17/statistical-literacy-among-doctors-now-lower-than-chance/#comment-25494</link>
		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Paul Torek]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Fri, 20 Dec 2013 01:14:09 +0000</pubDate>
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		<description><![CDATA[Steven for Congress!]]></description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Steven for Congress!</p>
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